A scholar has written: “Both Machiavelli and Hobbes actively eliminate Plato’s and Aristotle’s notions of moral education as central to a justly constructed polity. Indeed, there seems to be no role for moral education in the ancient sense.” What does this statement mean? Offer an interpretation of its meaning. Carefully build a case for why this scholar might hold such a position to be true and then construct an argument against it.
As part of your answer make sure you analyze what role if any education plays in The Prince and Leviathan, respectively. What kind of education, if any, do Machiavellian and Hobbesian subjects receive? What are the consequences of their views of education for politics? Is this a problem for these thinkers’ political theories, why or why not? Draw on philosophical and textual considerations to ultimately side either for or against the scholar.